A detailed refresher of the core equity valuation definitions and formulas, linking foundational Level I ideas to more advanced Level II applications.
You know that moment (maybe over a cup of coffee with your study buddies) when someone casually mentions “intrinsic value” or “free cash flows” and you realize there’s a whole nest of definitions you need to keep straight? Well, that’s exactly why we compiled this Essential Terms and Concepts Review. Our mission is to help you smoothly transition from Level I’s fundamentals to the deeper, more analytical demands of Level II. Let’s clarify the jargon, review the formulas, and ensure that you can confidently tackle the exam’s item-set vignettes without stumbling on the basics.
Sometimes, a big part of mastering finance is simply learning how to speak “financial analyst.” Clarity in terminology can help you avoid embarrassing slip-ups come exam time. More importantly, consistent use of the right terms (like FCFF vs. FCFE) signals that you’re a pro. In the real world, whether you’re explaining valuations to clients, colleagues, or your boss, you’ll want them to trust your command of the material.
Below, we’ll revisit fundamental concepts like intrinsic value and CAPM, and then connect them to more advanced ideas like emerging market risk premiums, multi-stage valuation parameters, and the impact of option pricing on equity value. Think of it like polishing off a strong foundation (Level I) and then adding a second, more impressive story (Level II).
At Level I, we talked about Intrinsic Value as the theoretical or “true” value of a security, calculated based on expected future cash flows. In a nutshell, if you discount all projected future cash flows back to the present at an appropriate discount rate, you’re getting pretty close to the stock’s intrinsic value.
• Why It’s Important:
• Advanced Angle: Intrinsic Value Under Multi-Stage Models.
Let’s say you’re analyzing a new tech start-up. If your required return is, oh, about 15%, that required return can be estimated via the CAPM equation:
where:
• Rᵣₑqᵤᵢᵣₑd is the required rate of return on equity.
• R_f is the risk-free rate (often proxied by Treasury yields).
• β is the stock’s sensitivity to market movements.
• (E(R_m) - R_f) is the equity risk premium.
• Why It’s Important:
• Advanced Angle: So-called “Expanded CAPM.”
Residual Income is the firm’s net income after deducting the cost of all capital, including equity. In other words, it’s that “excess” above the required return on the firm’s equity.
• Why It’s Important:
• Advanced Angle: Multi-Stage Residual Income Models.
WACC is your go-to measure for the firm’s overall cost of capital, combining both debt and equity costs. Suppose a company that has a market value of equity of $1 million, plus $500K in debt. If the cost of equity is 12%, the cost of debt is 6%, and the tax rate is 25%, the WACC can be computed as:
• Why It’s Important:
Here’s a short Python snippet just for fun:
1equity_market_value = 1_000_000
2debt_market_value = 500_000
3cost_of_equity = 0.12
4cost_of_debt = 0.06
5tax_rate = 0.25
6
7wacc = (equity_market_value / (equity_market_value + debt_market_value)) * cost_of_equity + \
8 (debt_market_value / (equity_market_value + debt_market_value)) * cost_of_debt * (1 - tax_rate)
9
10print(f"WACC: {wacc:.2%}")
Run it, and you should see something like 10.50%.
• Trailing P/E uses the past 12 months’ earnings.
• Forward P/E uses forecasts of future earnings.
It might sound like a small difference, but in practice, a forward P/E ratio can signal what the market expects about future profitability—useful if you’re analyzing a high-growth stock.
• Why It’s Important:
• FCFF is the cash flow available to all capital providers—both equity holders and debt holders.
• FCFE is the leftover for equity holders after you’ve satisfied debt obligations.
Which do you discount at WACC and which do you discount at the cost of equity?
• FCFF → WACC
• FCFE → Cost of equity (Rₑ)
Enterprise Value is basically the total value of a company from the perspective of all investors. In formula form:
Enterprise Value = Market value of equity + Market value of debt + Minority interest + Preferred shares – Cash & cash equivalents.
• Why It’s Important:
If you remember that CAPM assumes a single market risk premium, then you’ll see how an additional “country risk premium” is used to adjust for the sometimes more volatile economic environment in emerging markets.
• Why It’s Important:
Sometimes, especially with companies that have convertible bonds or warrants outstanding, the equity can behave like an option. As you approach Level II, you realize that the presence of embedded options can significantly affect a stock’s valuation—dilution risk, volatility changes, etc.
• Why It’s Important:
Below is a quick conceptual map (in Mermaid) to illustrate the major valuation approaches and how they interrelate:
flowchart TB A["Equity Valuation Approaches"] --> B["Dividend Discount Models"] A --> C["Free Cash Flow Models"] A --> D["Residual Income Models"] A --> E["Market-Based (Multiples)"] A --> F["Real Options & Other Advanced"] B --> G["Single/Multi-Stage"] C --> H["FCFF vs. FCFE"] D --> I["Single/Multi-Stage RI"] E --> J["P/E, P/B, EV/EBITDA, etc."] F --> K["Convertible Securities, Embedded Options"]
Reading this from left to right, you see how each approach sits under the broader umbrella of equity valuation. At Level II, you’ll go deeper into multi-stage DDM or the nuances of residual income, adjusting for off-balance sheet items, and so forth.
So, how do all these concepts connect in practice? Here’s a quick real-world-ish scenario:
• Suppose you’re valuing a manufacturing firm in a frontier market. You identify a higher cost of equity due to political instability, so you add a small country risk premium of, say, 3% to your standard CAPM output. This raises your discount rate from 10% to 13%. That single change can have a pronounced effect on your DCF calculations, dropping the present value of future cash flows by a noticeable margin.
• Next, you realize the firm is heavily leveraged and has multiple lines of credit. A simple P/E ratio might be misleading because interest costs are huge, so you turn to EV/EBITDA to compare the company with peers.
• Finally, you note that the firm has an embedded call option on a key resource, which might theoretically add upside potential if that resource hits a certain price. Factoring in that added optionality can elevate the equity value further—though it gets complicated quickly.
• Mixing FCFF and FCFE incorrectly. (If you discount FCFF by the cost of equity, you’re making a mismatch—yikes.)
• Using a trailing P/E for a company that’s had a big jump (or fall) in earnings—your ratio might be outdated.
• Applying CAPM in an emerging market without adjusting for extra volatility and risk.
• Forgetting to adjust your discount rate when the capital structure changes. WACC is not set in stone!
One strategy is to build flashcards or a digital concept map that includes:
• The name of the concept (e.g., CAPM, WACC, Residual Income, etc.).
• The formula, if applicable.
• One sentence explaining why it matters (“WACC is used as the discount rate for FCFF because it reflects the blended cost of different sources of capital.”).
• A small note on potential pitfalls or advanced uses (“For highly leveraged firms, consider enterprise-value-based multiples.”).
This succinct approach helps you recall definitions fast under exam pressure and fosters a stronger intangible connection: you’ll remember not just the formula, but also the reason and context.
• Stay agile on definitions. The item-set format can slip in tricky references, such as “owner’s earnings,” that might echo FCFE.
• Use consistent notation. For instance, if you see “r,” confirm whether it denotes the cost of equity or the WACC.
• Show the formula, but also show your conceptual understanding. Many Level II questions reward the “why,” not just the “how.”
• When in doubt, carefully re-check which discount rate or multiple is relevant for the scenario described.
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